Lameness is typically orthopedic, as we know, but there are times when this isn’t true. How do we know when this is true? To answer this question, I’d love to go through a case with you today.
Signalment: 11 year old FS Labrador
History: She has a 4 week history of right thoracic limb lameness. She is a hunting dog, and signs were noted after a busy weekend in the field. On initial evaluation, mild discomfort was appreciated in her elbow therefore carprofen was started. Clinical signs did not improve; they worsened. She became intermittently non-weightbearing lame in the right limb. All other limbs appeared normal. Additionally, she started helping when laying down or rising from laying. At this point, I stepped into the game. What am I looking for to suggest this might be neurologic in origin?
Neurologic Examination:
Mentation: BAR
Cranial nerves: miosis OD, did not dilate in a dark space. Remaining CN normal.
Gait: Ambulatory, moderate right thoracic limb lameness. When toe touching, the limb was touching on tiptoe only.
Reflexes: Reduced withdrawal distal to the elbow on the right (unable to flex the carpus or elbow completely during withdrawal but able to mechanically flex both joints when I flex them), unable to detect triceps reflex on either side, remainder normal. Absent cutaneous trunci reflex on right, normal on left. Normal reflexes both pelvic limbs.
Postural reactions: Normal paw replacement in left thoracic limb and both pelvic limbs. Unable to assess paw replacement in the right thoracic limb due to non-weightbearing status. Reduced hopping on right thoracic limb compared to left thoracic limb.
Palpation: No spinal pain, normal cervical ROM.
What is the neuroanatomic lesion localization?
The first question is always, is the problem neurologic in origin? She has evidence of reduced reflexes so I would suggest, yes, it is. Essentially, our abnormalities are focused on that right thoracic limb with the addition of miosis OD and absent c. trunci right side.
Reduced withdrawal in the thoracic limb suggests a radial nerve injury/damage. Even though signs are distal to the elbow, the lesion could still be proximal, and neurodegeneration has occurred distally. Is the damage inside the spinal canal (central) or in the peripheral nerves (brachial plexus)? To answer this question, look at the right pelvic limb. Do you see any paw replacement deficits or weakness in the right pelvic limb? These are the long tracts going from the limb to the brain and the must pass right through C6-T2 and C1-C5 as they do so. If the lesion is in the canal, we should see paw replacement deficits in the right pelvic limb. We don’t, so the lesion is more likely in the radial nerves after they have exited from the canal.
What do we do with the miosis? The sympathetic pathway to the eye is as follows: thalamus à brainstem à cervical spinal cord à exit T1-T3 à join vagosympathetic trunk and ascend to the head à ganglion à go through bulla to jump on CN 5 (trigeminal) à end in the iris for dilation. The radial nerve exits from segments C6-T2, which would cross over with T1-T3 and therefore we could make an argument that the miosis is secondary to involvement of this segment of the radial nerve.
What about the c. trunci? This one is pretty simple to understand once we refresh our memory of anatomy. Cutaneous trunci reflex is a simple spinal cord reflex that uses the dorsal sensory spinal nerves as afferent (sensory), and lateral thoracic nerve as efferent (motor). The lateral thoracic nerve arises from C8-T1. This fits with our assumption of a C6-T2 right sided neuropathy because loss of the lateral thoracic nerve on one side would cause an absent cutaneous trunci reflex.
Neuroanatomic lesion localization: Peripheral C6-T2 neuropathy/radiculopathy.
The differential diagnoses for this case were a lateralized intervertebral disc herniation, neoplasia, much less likely neuritis (infectious or inflammatory) and hypothyroidism. As it turns out this dog was diagnosed via MRI with a mass in the right brachial plexus. The owners elected amputation and it was determined to be a nerve sheath tumor. Why did the signs appear acutely? It’s not completely clear but my guess is that the dog was already decompensated slightly, and the heavy work caused inflammation or maybe even hemorrhage around the mass that resulted in an acute exacerbation.
That’s it for now! Reach out if you have any questions about this case, or any other case! I look forward to working with you soon. Have a great week!